Six-Communication-Tricks-That-Will-Get-Your-Kids-to-Cooperate

Source:
http://www.lifehacker.co.in/others/Six-Communication-Tricks-That-Will-Get-Your-Kids-to-Cooperate/articleshow/20418088.cms


Give Better Criticism with These Four RulesThorin Klosowski




Giving someone thoughtful, productive criticism is a lot harder than it seems. To keep things productive, cognitive scientist, author, and philosopher Daniel Dennett shares four simple rules to help guide you to successful critical commentary.



Whether you're in a debate about which way the toilet paper roll goes, or a heated discussion about politics, respect is a number one priority in disagreements. To get to a useful end, Dennett suggests you stick to four rules to keep from turning the debate into a caricature:



1. Attempt to re-express your target's position so clearly, vividly and fairly that your target says: ""Thanks, I wish I'd thought of putting it that way.""

2. List any points of agreement (especially if they are not matters of general or widespread agreement).

3. Mention anything you have learned from your target.

4. Only then are you permitted to say so much as a word of rebuttal or criticism.



Following these rules breeds respect, and that means you can continue the conversation until it reaches a productive outcome. Head over to The Guardian for a few more tips for priming your brain for critical thought.


Endevor footprint extract program (BC1PFOOT)
AMBLIST

Indore to Pune via Car

Source :
http://www.team-bhp.com/forum/route-travel-queries/64652-pune-indore-advice-required-route-choice.html


http://www.team-bhp.com/forum/travelogues/54608-pune-indore-pune-2012-nov-trip-report-page-3-a.html

http://www.team-bhp.com/forum/travelogues/75387-trip-log-pune-indore-mandsaur-bhopal-pune.html


I love tools and DIY projects. So I have always wanted to have a complete set of hand tools and this trip seemed to be a nice occasion to start buying some tools. So I prepared a tool kit comprising of the following:

•9 hex keys with ball point ends (Size 1.5 mm to 10 mm) - Chinese make

•12 double open ended spanners (Size 6x7 upto 30x32) - JK tools

•10 ring spanners, shallow type (Size 6x7 to 24x27) - JK tools

•1 Nose Plier - Nagpal brand

•1 Combination Plier - Taparia

•1 Wirestripper & cutter - JP Jetron

•1 Carpenter's Pincer (8") - JK tools

•1 Adjustable wrench (Size AWP 12" 300mm) - JK tools

•1 Hammer - unknown brand

•1 screw driver set from Taparia

•1 Long screw driver - JK tools

•20 m of thick nylon rope

•1 punch (the punch and hammer was to be used in case there was some emergency and the glasses had to be broken)

•1 LED torch and spare AA cells - Eveready

•1 Car Lamp - car battery powered

•Tubeless tyre puncture repair kit

•Tyre pressure gauge - Accutire

•Tyre pump - car battery operated - Durabuilt

•A pair of scissors

•A cutting knife

•A cigaratte lighter (I do not smoke, but thought it would be a good thing to have in the kit)

•Insulation tape

•Duct/Packing tape

I still have plans to buy more tools down the line.



Other things taken for the trip.

•Duplicate Car key

•Maruti Customer Care number

•Reliance Insurance customer care number

•Number and addresses of Maruti Dealers/MASS located in the cities/towns on the way

•Original Vehicle papers

•Copy of all original papers

•Eicher Road Atlas

•Extra Fuses for the vehicle and the fuse puller

•A medicine kit for most common situations

Safety Equipment

•2 cans of Cobra Magnum pepper spray

Food

•Sandwiches - about a dozen

•5 litre water bottles – 2 no

•1 litre water bottle – 1 no

•Chips, biscuits and fruits (oranges & apples)

Home loan and HRA: how the tax works out

Source: NDTV profit
http://profit.ndtv.com/news/your-money/article-home-loan-and-hra-how-the-tax-works-out-317314?ch&pfrom=home-business


Ajit, currently employed with Company A, is staying in a rented apartment in Mumbai and has bought himself a property in Chennai for which he has taken a home loan. He finds himself in a dilemma while filing tax returns. "Can I claim both HRA and home loan benefits?" This seems to be a confusing factor for most tax payers. When Ajit pays rent, under the Income tax act, he is definitely allowed to claim both HRA and home loan benefits (interest payment and principal repayment).




Also Read: Five things to know about HRA



Let us evaluate various possible situations an individual can find himself in and understand what the Income Tax Act permits him to do.



1: You live in your own house

You have taken a home loan and residing in the house purchased with it. Since you are residing in your own house, you will not be able to claim HRA. However, you will be able to claim tax benefits on both the principal and interest repaid on the home loan.



2: You own a house in another city

This situation was the one faced by Ajit. He resided in Mumbai but had bought an apartment in Chennai taking a home loan. Ajit will be entitled to HRA exemption and tax benefits on both, the principal and interest repaid on the home loan.



3: Your house cannot be occupied at this point (e.g. under construction)

You have bought a house in Mumbai taking a home loan and you're currently living in Mumbai in a rented apartment because the house is under construction. In such a case, you are eligible to claim HRA.

In the case of tax breaks on the home loan, you can claim tax benefits only for your principal before the completion of your house. Once your house is completed, you can claim tax benefits on the total interest paid up to the date of completion in five equal installments in five years beginning from the year of completion.



4: You have a house which is ready for occupation but you cannot reside in it

You have bought a house in Delhi taking a home loan and now you aren't residing in it but are living in a rented apartment in Delhi itself for genuine reasons e.g. the house that you have bought is far away from your office. In such cases, the Income tax act permits the individual to claim HRA and home loan benefits which includes both principal and interest repaid on the home loan.



Also, please note that if your house remains vacant, then you will still need to pay tax on a notional rent income.



5: You have rented your own house and currently residing in a rented house

You took a home loan and your house is now ready for occupation. You have rented the same out while you reside in a rented house. The Income Tax Act allows you to claim both HRA and home loan benefits.



However, in such a case, since you are the recipient of rent because you have let out your own house, that income is taxable at your hands.



The Income Tax Act treats HRA and home loan deductions under separate sections independently. The two are not interconnected to each other. HRA is dealt with in section 10(13A) Rule 2A while home loans are entitled for tax benefits under section 80C (tax benefit on principal repayment) and Section 24 (tax benefit on interest payment) of the Income Tax Act. Hence, feel free to avail both tax benefits accordingly.



Now that we have dealt with all possible situations with regard to availing HRA and home loan tax benefits, let's take Ajit's situation as an example to help you figure out how to avail them.



Claiming tax benefits on a home loan:

Ajit had purchased an apartment in Chennai for Rs. 38 lakh three years back. He took a home loan of Rs. 32 lakh to fund this house purchase. So far, this year he has repaid an interest of Rs. 3.3 lakh and a principal amount of Rs. 60,000.



Section 80C offers tax rebate on home loan principal up to a limit of Rs. 1 lakh and Section 24 on interest up to a limit of Rs. 1.5 lakh. So Ajit can utilize up to Rs.1.5L on his interest paid and avail the tax benefits in full for the amount paid towards principal.



Calculating tax benefits on HRA:

Ajit earns a basic salary of Rs. 40,000 per month and has rented an apartment in Mumbai for Rs. 20,000 per month (he is eligible for 50 per cent of the basic pay for HRA exemption, as he resides in a metro). The actual HRA he receives is Rs. 25,000. These values are considered to find out his HRA tax exemption:



a. Actual HRA allowance from the employer, i.e. Rs. 25,000,

b. fifty per cent of the basic salary as he resides in a metro (else 40per cent), i.e. Rs. 20,000, and,

c. The actual rent he pays for the house from which 10 per cent of his basic pay is deducted, i.e. Rs. 20,000 - Rs. 4,000 = Rs. 16,000



The value considered for his actual HRA exemption will be the least value of the above figures. Hence, the taxable HRA amount for Ajit per month will be Rs. 25,000- 16,000 (available HRA deduction) = Rs. 9,000.



BankBazaar.com is an online loan marketplace.



Disclaimer: All information in this article has been provided by BankBazaar.com and NDTV Profit is not responsible for the accuracy and completeness of the same.


Summary :

 

Income tax returns: 9 tax saving options other than Section 80C

Source: NDTV profit
http://profit.ndtv.com/news/your-money/article-income-tax-returns-9-tax-saving-options-other-than-section-80c-319862?pfrom=home-business

Before you calculate your tax liabilities, remember to analyze the various sections of tax deductions under the Income Tax Act as tax planning does not end with Section 80C. (Calculate your tax liability here)



80D:

Tax deduction under section 80D qualifies for mediclaim policies. The premium, which is paid for medical insurance policy for self and family members to protect them from sudden medical expenses, comes under this section. The maximum amount allowed for exemption annually for self, spouse and dependent parents/children is Rs. 15,000. In case of a senior citizen, the maximum amount extends up to Rs. 20,000. If you are paying the premium for your parents (whether dependent or not), you can claim an additional maximum deduction of Rs. 15,000.



80DD:

According to the Income Tax Act, if you are paying a premium to LIC or any other insurance company (approved by the Income Tax board) for the medical treatment of a dependent physically disabled person, you can avail exemption under the section 80DD. Here, the dependent should be none other than your spouse, children, parents or sibling. If the person is suffering from 40 per cent of any disability, a fixed sum of Rs. 50,000 can be claimed in a year. Similarly, if the disability is 80 per cent, the fixed sum goes up to Rs. 1,00,000 per year. For initiating the process of deduction you need to submit the medical certificate issued by a medical authority along with the return of income.



80DDB:

If you have incurred expenses for the medical treatment of self or your dependents, you can claim a deduction of up to Rs. 40,000 or the actual amount paid, whichever is less, under the section 80DDB. For a senior citizen, the maximum exempted amount is Rs. 60,000, or the amount actually paid for medical expenses. To claim a deduction under this section, you need to submit a medical certificate from a doctor working in a government hospital.



80E:

The interest paid on loan taken for pursuing higher education of self or any dependent is exempted from tax under section 80E. An education loan can be taken for wife, children and minors for whom you are the legal guardian. This deduction is applicable for a period of eight years or till the interest is paid, whichever is earlier. The deduction is only approved for higher studies, which means full-time graduate or postgraduate courses in engineering, management or applied sciences, pure sciences including mathematics or statistics. However, from 2011 onwards, the scope of this exemption has been extended to cover all fields of studies including vocational studies pursued after completing the senior secondary examination or equivalent. No exemption is applicable for part-time courses.



80G:

One often donates on philanthropic grounds to help the destitute. Such an amount can be donated to trusts, charitable institutions and approved educational institutions, and qualifies for deduction under Section 80G. The exemptions can be up to 50 per cent or 100 per cent of the donations made. Funds in which the donations are eligible for tax exemptions include the National Defence Fund, Prime Minister Drought Relief Fund, National Foundation for Communal Harmony, National Children's Fund, Prime Minister's National Relief Fund, etc.



80GG:

If a salaried or self-employed person staying in a rented house does not receive any kind of HRA, they can claim a deduction under this section. However, you cannot avail any such benefit if you, your spouse and/or your child owns any residential accommodation in India or abroad. You can claim the least of the following under Section 80GG: 25 per cent of the total income, or Rs. 2000 per month, or excess of rent paid over 10 per cent of total income.



80GGC:

Any monetary contribution to any political party or electoral trust is eligible for tax exemption. Thus, your contribution, as a matter of appreciation for their work, will serve both the purposes.



80U:

A resident of India suffering from any kind of specified disability is eligible to claim tax deduction under this section. In order to enjoy this opportunity, one should be suffering from not less than 40 per cent of the following diseases: blindness, low vision, mental illness, mental retardation, hearing impairment. The deduction provided is flat Rs. 50,000, irrespective of the expense incurred. If the disability is severe, the deduction can be up to Rs. 1 lakh. One needs to provide a copy of all the certificates issued by a medical authority in order to avail this benefit.



80CCG:

The Finance Act 2012 introduced a new Section 80CCG to offer 50 per cent tax break to new investors who invest up to Rs. 50,000 and whose GTI is less than or equal to Rs. 10 lakh. It has been introduced for budding investors entering the equity markets for the first time and is a once-in-a-lifetime benefit.



Hence, there are several sections apart from 80C that can help an individual benefit from tax exemptions. It is time to start looking beyond 80C for tax savings.



BankBazaar.com is an online loan marketplace.



Disclaimer: All information in this article has been provided by BankBazaar.com and NDTV Profit is not responsible for the accuracy and completeness of the same.

Exercise for Double Chin

Neck Roll


Sit straight and inhale while turning the head to one side such that the chin touches the shoulder. Now exhale and slowly lower the head such that the chin is resting on the chest. Inhale again and gently lift your head to the other side where the chin touches the other shoulder. Repeat 5 to 10 times.

Chin Slap

Using the back of your hand, slap gently underneath your chin. Whilst gently slapping, gradually build up speed. Do this for a couple of minutes, 2-3 times a day.

Platysma Exercise

In this exercise, you open the mouth as wide as possible, then stretch the lower lip and jaw over your top row of teeth. This will tighten the area around the chin and help you lose a double chin. Repeat five to 10 times.



Fitness expert Samir Purohit, too, says that there no specific exercises in Pilates for a double chin and reducing overall body fat will help instead.

Chin Life

Another exercise is the Chin Lift, as it stretches and tones the various muscles of the face eg. the jaw and neck. Sit erect and tilt your head back until you are looking toward the ceiling. Lips should be pursed tightly, as if you wanted to kiss the ceiling. Just use your lips, do not engage facial muscles. Hold your lips for a five seconds and then release. Repeat five to 10 times.

Reduce Overall Body Fat

When a person is fat, there is accumulation of fat everywhere on the body and hence, as a result occurs a double chin. “Spot reduction is a myth. You can’t get rid of double chin with certain neck and chin exercises alone. One has to reduce fat percentage overall. Double chin exercises will work only when coupled with diet and weight training,” explains Mogre. Sometimes, people can get a double chin due to hereditary reasons and in such cases they could opt for a cosmetic procedures to get rid of it, she adds.

ITIL Question

Source : www.itilv3exam.com

QUESTION 51

     The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"?

A.Knowledge Management

B.Availability Management

C.Service Asset and Configuration Management

D.Change Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 52

     Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

A.The Asset Register

B.The Service Knowledge Management System

C.The Known Error Database

D.The Information Management System

Answer: B

QUESTION 53

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a service

B.Governance

C.Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

D.Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 54

What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A.Rapid, one-off improvement

B.Return on investment within 12 months

C.Quick wins

D.Steady, ongoing improvement

Answer: D

QUESTION 55

"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Service Operation

B.Service Strategy

C.Service Transition

D.Continual Service Improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 56

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Service Strategy

B.Continual Service Improvement

C.Service Operation

D.Service Design

Answer: B

QUESTION 57

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Continual Service Improvement

B.Service Strategy

C.Service Design

D.Service Transition

Answer: B

QUESTION 58

Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action"?

A.A Problem model

B.A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)

C.A Request for Change (RFC)

D.A Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION 59

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?

A.A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action

B.A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents

C.A complaint by the business about a missed service level

D.The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

Answer: A

Exam D

QUESTION 1

What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

A.Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), quality

B.Strategic, tactical and operational

C.Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activities

D.Technology, process and service

Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfilment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Service Strategy

B.Service Transition

C.Service Operation

D.Continual Service Improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 3

Reliability is a measure of:

A.The availability of a service or component

B.The level of risk that could impact a service or process

C.How long a service or component can perform its function without failing

D.A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working

Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

A.The RACI Model

B.A Release Package

C.A Request Model

D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle

Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What is a RACI model used for?

A.Performance analysis

B.Recording Configuration Items

C.Monitoring services

D.Defining roles and responsibilities

Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A.Proprietary Knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B.Public standards are always cheaper to adopt

C.Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do

D.Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Which of the following is an objective of Release and Deployment Management?

A.To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes

B.To ensure all changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration

Management System (CMS)

C.To ensure that overall business risk of change is optimized

D.To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

Answer: D

QUESTION 8

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

B.Capacity Plan

C.Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)

Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management?

A.A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services

B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose

C.The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities

D.Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 10

"Service Management is a set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialized organizational capabilities include which of the following?

A.Applications and Infrastructure

B.Functions and Processes

C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue

D.Markets and Customers

Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A.It is measurable

B.Delivers specific results

C.Responds to specific events

D.A method of structuring an organization

Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? *1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder *2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A.Both of the above

B.1 only

C.Neither of the above

D.2 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported

B.To provide training and certification in project management

C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management

D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 14

What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?

A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle

B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services

C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs

D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Answer: D

QUESTION 15

When can a Known Error record be raised? *1. At any time it would be useful to do so

*2. After the permanent solution has been implemented

A.2 only

B.1 only

C.Neither of the above

D.Both of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 16

What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?

A.An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization

B.An agreement between the service provider and an external organization

C.A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis

D.A document that describes business services to operational staff

Answer: A

QUESTION 17

Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

A.A measurement of cost

B.A function described within Service Transition

C.The team of people responsible for implementing a release

D.The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

Answer: D

QUESTION 18

The BEST description of an Incident is:

A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service

B.An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service

C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned

D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 19

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

A. A Known Error for which the cause and resolution are not yet known

B.The cause of two or more Incidents

C.A serious Incident which has a critical impact to the business

D.The cause of one or more Incidents

Answer: D

QUESTION 20

Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:

A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers

B.People, Process, Products, Technology

C.People, Process, Products, Partners

D.People, Products, Technology, Partners

Answer: C

QUESTION 21

What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: *1. What is the vision?

*2. Where are we now?

*3. Where do we want to be?

*4. How do we get there?

*5. Did we get there?

*6. ?

A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?

B.How much did it cost?

C.How do we keep the momentum going?

D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?

Answer: C

QUESTION 22

Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.

*1. Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives

*2. Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved *3. Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI

*4. Decision on implementation of further enhancements

A.3-1-2-4

B.3-4-2-1

C.1-3-2-4

D.2-3-4-1

Answer: A

QUESTION 23

Which of the following activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?

A.Implementing service and process improvements

B.Reviewing measurable improvements

C.Creating a baseline

D.Defining measurable targets

Answer: D

QUESTION 24

Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

A.Processes and functions

B.Maturity and cost

C.The end to end service

D.Infrastructure availability

Answer: C

QUESTION 25

Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process?

A.Service Portfolio Management

B.Service Level Management

C.Component Capacity Management

D.Demand Management

Answer: D

QUESTION 26

The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services

B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services

C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue

D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Answer: D

QUESTION 27

Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?

A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management

B.Supplier Management and Demand Management

C.Demand Management and Service Level Management

D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 28

Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?

A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for

future development

B.The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for future development

C.The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared for deployment

D.Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing

Answer: C

QUESTION 29

Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?

A.Service Level Management

B.IT Operations Management

C.Capacity Management

D.Incident Management

Answer: B

QUESTION 30

Consider the following list: *1. Change Authority *2. Change Manager

*3. Change Advisory Board (CAB) What are these BEST described as?

A.Job descriptions

B.Functions

C.Teams

D.Roles, people or groups

Answer: D

QUESTION 31

Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A.Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management

B.Change Management, Capacity Management Event Management, Service Request Management

C.Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management

D.Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfilment

Answer: A

QUESTION 32

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A.The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data Base

B.The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management System

C.The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management system

D.The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database

Answer: C

QUESTION 33

Which of the following are included within Release and Deployment Models? *1. Roles and responsibilities

*2. Template release and deployment schedules

*3. Supporting systems, tools and procedures

*4. Handover activities and responsibilities

A.1, 2 and 4 only

B.2, 3 and 4 only

C.All of the above

D.1 and 4 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 34

Major Incidents require:

A.Separate procedures

B.Less urgency

C.Longer timescales

D.Less documentation

Answer: A

QUESTION 35

Which of the following statements about Incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

A.Incidents can only be reported by users, since they are the only people who know when a service has been disrupted

B.Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal service. This includes technical staff

C.All calls to the Service Desk must be logged as Incidents to assist in reporting Service Desk activity

D.Incidents reported by technical staff must be logged as Problems because technical staff manage infrastructure devices not services

Answer: B

QUESTION 36

What is the BEST description of a Major Incident?

A.An Incident that is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found

B.An Incident which requires a large number of people to resolve

C.An Incident logged by a senior manager

D.An Incident which has a high priority or high impact on the business

Answer: D

QUESTION 37

Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

A.Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each other

B.Urgency should be based on impact and priority

C.Impact should be based on urgency and priority

D.Priority should be based on impact and urgency

Answer: D

QUESTION 38

Hierarchic escalation is best described as?

A.Notifying more senior levels of management about an Incident

B.Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C.Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfaction

D.Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement

Answer: A

QUESTION 39

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Problem Management?

A.Minimizing the impact of Incidents that cannot be prevented

B.Preventing Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

C.Eliminating recurring Incidents

D.Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible and minimizing adverse impact on the business

Answer: D

QUESTION 40

Which of the following BEST describes a Service Request?

A.A request from a User for information, advice or for a Standard Change

B.Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for

C.Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interface

D.Any Request for Change (RFC) that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a

Change Advisory Board (CAB) meeting

Answer: A

QUESTION 41

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

A.To prevent Problems and their resultant Incidents

B.To manage Problems throughout their lifecycle

C.To restore service to a user

D.To eliminate recurring Incidents

Answer: C

QUESTION 42

Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures? *1. Local Service Desk

*2. Virtual Service Desk

*3. IT Help Desk

*4. Follow the Sun

A.1, 2 and 4 only

B.2, 3 and 4 only

C.1, 3 and 4 only

D.1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 43

Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

A.Network Management and Application Management

B.Technical Management and Change Management

C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management

D.Facilities Management and Release Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 44

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A.Knowledge

B.Information

C.Wisdom

D.Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 45

Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Lifecycle? *1. Data mining and workflow

*2. Measurement and reporting

*3. Release and deployment

*4. Process Design

A.2, 3 and 4 only

B.1, 3 and 4 only

C.1, 2 and 3 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 46

Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?

A.Measurement, methods and metrics

B.Service Design Package

C.Service Portfolio Design

D.Process definitions

Answer: B

QUESTION 47

What are the three Service Provider business models?

A.Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party

B.Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit

C.Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party

D.Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

Answer: D

QUESTION 48

What is the Service Pipeline?

A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage

B.All services except those that have been retired

C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.All complex multi-user services

Answer: A

QUESTION 49

What are the key processes within Service Operation?

A.Event Management, Incident Management, Problem Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management

B.Event Management, Incident Management, Request Fulfilment and Access Management

C.Incident Management, Problem Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment and Event Management

D.Incident Management, Service Desk, Request Fulfilment, Access Management and Event Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 50

Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and Partners"?

A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors

B.Customers

C.Internal departments

D.The Facilities Management function

Answer: A

QUESTION 51

At which stage of the Service Lifecycle should the processes needed to operate a new service be defined?

A.Service Design: Design the processes

B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings

C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment

D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 52

Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A.Service Catalogue Management

B.Service Level Management

C.IT Service Continuity Management

D.Capacity Management

Answer: D

QUESTION 53

Which of the following are objectives of Service Level Management?

*1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided *2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided *3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction

*4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1 and 2 only

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 54

Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met

their targets?

A.Continual Service Improvement

B.Business Relationship Management

C.Service Level Management

D.Availability Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 55

Availability Management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A.IT Services and Components

B.IT Services and Business Processes

C.Components and Business Processes

D.IT Services, Components and Business Processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 56

Which of the following does the Availability Management process include? *1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets

*2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability

*3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals

A.1 only

B.All of the above

C.1 and 2 only

D.1 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 57

Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.Change Management

B.Service Portfolio Management

C.Supplier Management

D.Continual Service Improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 58

Where should performance information that supports the Capacity Management process be stored?

A.A configuration management database (CMDB)

B.A capacity management database (CMDB)

C.A configuration management system (CMS)

D.A capacity management information system (CMIS)

Answer: D

QUESTION 59

Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?

A.Capacity Management

B.Incident Management

C.Service Level Management

D.Financial Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 60

IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on: *1. Design of the service metrics

*2. Business continuity strategy

*3. Business Impact Analysis

*4. Risk assessment

A.1, 2 and 4 only

B.1, 2 and 3 only

C.2, 3 and 4 only

D.1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 61

Which of these should a change model include?

*l. The steps that should be taken to handle the change

*2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation

*3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions

*4. Complaints procedures

A.1,2 and 3 only

B.All of the above

C.1 and 2 only

D.2 and 4 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 62

Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

A.The Change Advisory Board

B.A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.

C.A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.

D.The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change

Answer: C

QUESTION 63

The group that reviews Changes that must be installed faster than the normal Change process is called the:

A.Technical Management (TM)

B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)

C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)

D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Answer: B

QUESTION 64

Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process?

A.A change to a contract with a supplier

B.A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposes

C.An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incident

D.A change to a business process

Answer: D

QUESTION 65

Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?

A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design

B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and

service components

C.To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriate

D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

Answer: A

QUESTION 66

Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? *1. Logging details of Incidents and Service Requests

*2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis

*3. Restoring service

*4. Diagnosing the root-cause of Problems

A.All of the above

B.1, 2 and 3 only

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 67

Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre?

A.Technical Management

B.Service Desk

C.Applications Management

D.Facilities Management

Answer: D

QUESTION 68

Which of the following is a PRIMARY concern of IT Governance?

A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes

B.Ensuring that processes and procedures are correctly followed

C.Reducing the total cost of providing services

D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met

Answer: B

QUESTION 69

Which of the following is the BEST definition of a Risk?

A.Something that will not happen

B.Something that will happen

C.Something that has happened

D.Something that might happen

Answer: D

QUESTION 70

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is:

A.The part of a contract that specifies responsibilities of each party

B.An agreement between the Service Provider and an internal organization

C.An agreement between a Service Provider and an external supplier

D.An agreement between the Service Provider and their customer

Answer: D

QUESTION 71

What are underpinning contracts used to document?

A.The provision of IT services or business services by a Service Provider

B.The provision of goods and services by Suppliers

C.Service Levels that have been agreed between the Service Provider and their Customer

D.Metrics and Critical Success Factors (CSFs) in an external agreement

Answer: B

QUESTION 72

The Definitive Media Library and Definitive Spares are the responsibility of:

A.Facilities Management

B.Access Management

C.Request Fulfilment

D.Service Asset and Configuration Management

Answer: D

QUESTION 73

Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

A.Service Level Management

B.Service Portfolio Management

C.Request Fulfilment

D.Demand Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 74

What are Request Models used for?

A.Assessing changes to understand their potential impact

B.Modeling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests

C.Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote

D.Defining how frequently received user requests should be handled

Answer: D

QUESTION 75

What is the objective of Access Management?

A.To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildings

B.To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locations

C.To manage access to the Service Desk

D.To manage the right to use a service or group of services

Answer: D

QUESTION 76

A configuration model can be used to help

*1. Assess the impact and cause of incidents and problems *2. Assess the impact of proposed changes

*3. Plan and design new or changed services

*4. Plan technology refresh and software upgrades

A.1, 2, and 3 only

B.All of the above

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.3 and 4 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 77

Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?

A.The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together

B.The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changed

C.The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular release

D.A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process

Answer: A

QUESTION 78

Which process is responsible for monitoring an IT Service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

A.Service Asset and Configuration Management

B.Event Management

C.Service Catalogue Management

D.Performance Management

Answer: B

QUESTION 79

Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident? *1. Incident Model

*2. Known Error Record

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both of the above

D.Neither of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 80

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A.Demand Management

B.Incident Management

C.Release and Deployment Management

D.Request Fulfilment

Answer: D

QUESTION 81

Who is responsible for defining Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Change Management?

A.The Change Management Process Owner

B.The Change Advisory Board (CAB)

C.The Service Owner

D.The Continual Service Improvement Manager

Answer: A

QUESTION 82

Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfilment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A.The IT Director

B.The Process Owner

C.The Service Owner

D.The Customer

Answer: B

QUESTION 83

Access Management is closely related to which other process?

A.Capacity Management only

B.3rd line support

C.Information Security Management

D.Change Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 84

Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue

B.The design of new or changed services

C.The design of Market Spaces

D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Answer: C

QUESTION 85

Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?

A.Act

B.Plan

C.Do

D.Coordinate

Answer: D

QUESTION 86

A Process Owner is responsible for which of the following? *1. Documenting the process

*2. Defining process Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

*3. Improving the process

*4. Performing all activities involved in a process

A.1, 3 and 4 only

B.All of the above

C.1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

QUESTION 87

Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT?

A.Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own

B.Is responsible for contributing to continual improvement affecting the service they own

C.Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they own

D.Is accountable for a specific service within an organization

Answer: A

QUESTION 88

A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them?

A.Tell others about the progress of an activity

B.Perform an activity

C.Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity

D.Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 89

Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organizational structure?

A.RACI Model

B.Service Model

C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model

D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model

Answer: A

QUESTION 90

Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Service Catalogue Management?

A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate

B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate

C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio

D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

Answer: B

QUESTION 91

Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning Contracts?

A.Change Management

B.Service Catalogue Management

C.Supplier Management

D.Release and Deployment Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 92

Which of the following are valid parts of the Service Portfolio? *1. Service Pipeline

*2. Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS)

*3. Service Catalogue

A.1 and 2 only

B.3 only

C.1 and 3 only

D.All of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 93

Which of the following provides the primary guidance on what protection Information Security Management should provide for each asset?

A.The IT Executive

B.The ISO27001 Standard

C.The Business

D.The Service Level Manager

Answer: C

QUESTION 94

Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

A.The Service Level Management

B.The IT Service Continuity Management

C.The Service Catalogue Management

D.The Supplier Management

Answer: D

QUESTION 95

What does a service always deliver to customers?

A.Applications

B.Infrastructure

C.Value

D.Resources

Answer: C

QUESTION 96

Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

A.The Service Provider

B.The Service Level Manager

C.The Customer

D.The Finance department

Answer: A

QUESTION 97

Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A.Service Design

B.Service Transition

C.Service Strategy

D.Service Operation

Answer: C

QUESTION 98

Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A.Change Management

B.Service Transition

C.Service Strategy

D.Service Design

Answer: D

QUESTION 99

Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business? *1. Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements

*2. Reduced cost to design new services

*3. Improved success in implementing changes

A.1 and 2 only

B.2 and 3 only

C.1 and 3 only

D.All of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 100

Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?

A.Capacity Management

B.Governance

C.Service Design

D.Service Level Management

Answer: B

QUESTION 101

Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?

A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts

C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio

D.Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)

Answer: B

QUESTION 102

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A.An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use

B.An agreement that covers one service for a single customer

C.An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure

D.An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service

Answer: D

QUESTION 103

Which of the following would you expect to find in a contract for an underpinning service? *1. Service vision and mission

*2. Service description and scope

*3. Responsibilities and dependencies

A.1 and 2 only

B.1 and 3 only

C.2 and 3 only

D.None of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 104

Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

A.The Service Level Agreement (SLA)

B.The Problem Record

C.The Availability Management Information System

D.The IT Service Continuity Plan

Answer: B

QUESTION 105

Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A.They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of work

B.We must be able to measure them in a relevant manner

C.They deliver specific results

D.They respond to specific events

Answer: A

QUESTION 106

Which of the following are objectives of Service Design? *1. Design services to satisfy business objectives *2. Identify and manage risk

*3. Design effective and efficient processes

*4. Design a secure and resilient IT infrastructure

A.1 only

B.2 and 3 only

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 107

You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement could NOT be part of this value proposition?

A.Reduced Total Cost of Ownership

B.Improved quality of service

C.Improved Service alignment with business goals

D.Better balance of technical skills to support live services

Answer: D

QUESTION 108

Which phase of the ITIL lifecycle provides the following benefit:

The Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) of a service can be minimized if all aspects of the service, the processes and the technology are considered during development'?

A.Service Design

B.Service Strategy

C.Service Operation

D.Continual Service Improvement

Answer: A

QUESTION 109

Which statement about Service Level Agreements(SLAs) is CORRECT?

A.They must contain legal wording because of their importance

B.There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customer

C.The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguity

D.Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer

Answer: C

QUESTION 110

A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found.

Is this a valid approach?

A.Yes

B.No - the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged

C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented

D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 111

Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform?

*1. Communication between Data Centre shifts

*2. Communication related to changes

*3. Performance reporting

*4. Routine operational communication

A.1 only

B.2 and 3 only

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 112

Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT? *1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action

*2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both of the above

D.None of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 113

Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

A.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services

B.Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services

C.To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening

D.To detect security events and make sense of them

Answer: B

QUESTION 114

Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?

A.The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves

B.The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are

in one place

C.The desk provides 24 hour global support

D.There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

Answer: D

QUESTION 115

Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'?

A.People, Products, Partners, Profit

B.People, Process, Products, Partners

C.Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit

D.People, Potential, Products, Performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 116

Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?

*1. The services

*2. The architectures

*3. The configuration items

*4. The processes

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1, 3 and 4 only

C.2,3 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 117

Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages *1. Monitor, Measure and Review

*2. Continual Improvement

*3. Implement Initiatives

*4. Plan for Improvement

A.1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 Act

B.3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

C.4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 Act

D.2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act

Answer: C

QUESTION 118

Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the

principles

defined in the vision'?

A.Where are we now?

B.Where do we want to be?

C.How do we get there?

D.Did we get there?

Answer: B

QUESTION 119

Which of the following are objectives of Supplier Management? *1. Negotiating and agreeing Contracts

*2. Updating the Supplier and Contract database

*3. Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts *4. Managing relationships with internal suppliers

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1, 3 and 4 only

C.2, 3 and 4 only

D.None of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 120

Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database

B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item

C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration Management

D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported

Answer: C

QUESTION 121

Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk? *1. Known Error Data

*2. Change Schedules

*3. Service Knowledge Management System

*4. Diagnostic scripts and tools

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1, 2 and 4 only

C.2, 3 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 122

Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

A.Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occur

B.Delivering improvements to achieve reduced costs

C.First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by users

D.Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities

Answer: C

QUESTION 123

How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A.As many as necessary to complete the activity

B.Only one - the process owner

C.Two - the process owner and the process enactor

D.Only one - the process architect

Answer: B

QUESTION 124

Which areas of Service Management can benefit from automation? *1. Design and Modeling

*2. Reporting

*3. Pattern Recognition and Analysis

*4. Detection and Monitoring

A.1, 2 and 3 only

B.1, 3 and 4 only

C.2, 3 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 125

Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?

A.Components

B.Processes

C.The end to end service

D.Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 126

Outside of the core publications, which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments?

A.The ITIL Complementary Guidance

B.The Service Support book

C.Pocket Guides

D.The Service Strategy book

Answer: A

QUESTION 127

Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what?

A.Service level requests

B.Changes and Releases

C.Password resets

D.Incidents and Problems

Answer: B

QUESTION 128

Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers?

A.Continual Service Improvement

B.Service Transition

C.Service Design

D.Service Operation

Answer: D

QUESTION 129

Gathering data, monitoring performance and assessing metrics in order to facilitate service improvements are all activities associated with which part of the service lifecycle?

A.Service Operation

B.Capacity Management

C.Service Design

D.Availability Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 130

In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution?

A.The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated

B.Measures for optimization are identified

C.Service value is modeled

D.Service value is actually seen by customers

Answer: D

QUESTION 131

Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A.Service Operation

B.Service Transition

C.Continual Service Improvement

D.Service Strategy

Answer: C

QUESTION 132

Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

*1. Risk assessment

*2. Testing of resilience mechanisms

A.None of the above

B.Both of the above

C.1 only

D.2 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 133

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A.The value of a service

B.Customer satisfaction

C.Total cost of ownership

D.Key performance indicators

Answer: A

QUESTION 134

Which of these recommendations is good practice for Service Level Management? *1. Include legal terminology in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

*2. It is NOT necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both of the above

D.Neither of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 135

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

A.The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service

B.The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use

C.An SLA that covers all customers for all services

D.An SLA for a service with no customers

Answer: A

QUESTION 136

Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi-level Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A.Technology, Customer, User

B.Corporate, Customer, Service

C.Corporate, Customer, Technology

D.Service, User, IT

Answer: B

QUESTION 137

Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

A.Remediation Planning

B.Categorization

C.Prioritization

D.Review and Close

Answer: A

QUESTION 138

What body exists to support the authorisation of changes and to assist Change Management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.The Change Authorisation Board

B.The Change Advisory Board

C.The Change Implementer

D.The Change Manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 139

Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A.The ECAB considers every high priority Request for Change

B.Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changes

C.The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CAB

D.The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director

Answer: C

QUESTION 140

What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A.Configuration Baseline

B.Project Baseline

C.Change Baseline

D.Asset Baseline

Answer: A

QUESTION 141

Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?

*1. Configuration Items (CIs) may be grouped and managed together

*2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and

the

right level of control

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both of the above

D.Neither of the above

Answer: C

QUESTION 142

Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

A.Describes the topography of the hardware

B.Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the services

C.Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware

D.Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 143

What is the name of the area where the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items(CIs) are stored and protected?

A.Definitive Media Library

B.Definitive Software Store

C.Service Knowledge Management System

D.Software Secure Library

Answer: A

QUESTION 144

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A.A Service Level Agreement(SLA)

B.A Request for Change(RFC)

C.The Service Portfolio

D.A Service Description

Answer: A

QUESTION 145

Which of the following should be documented in an Incident Model?

*1. Details of the Service Level Agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident *2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

A.1 only

B.2 only

C.Both of the above

D.Neither of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 146

Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine? *1. Things that were done correctly

*2. Those things that were done incorrectly

*3. How to prevent recurrence

*4. What could be done better in the future

A.1 only

B.2 and 3 only

C.1, 2 and 4 only

D.All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 147

Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can be obtained?

A.Categorization

B.Diagnosis

C.Prioritization

D.Closure

Answer: A

QUESTION 148

Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A.Definitive Media Library (DML)

B.Configuration Management System (CMS)

C.Statement of Requirements (SOR)

D.Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

Answer: B

QUESTION 149

Identify the input to the Problem Management process.

A.Request for Change

B.Problem Resolution

C.Incident Records

D.New Known Errors

Answer: C

QUESTION 150

What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

A.Technical and Service

B.Resource and Proactive

C.Reactive and Technical

D.Proactive and Reactive

Answer: D

QUESTION 151

The goal of which process is: "To improve the quality of management decision making by ensuring that reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the lifecycle"?

A.Knowledge Management

B.Availability Management

C.Service Asset and Configuration Management

D.Change Management

Answer: A

QUESTION 152

Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

A.The Asset Register

B.The Service Knowledge Management System

C.The Known Error Database

D.The Information Management System

Answer: B

QUESTION 153

Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A.The value of a service

B.Governance

C.Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)

D.Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 154

What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A.Rapid, one-off improvement

B.Return on investment within 12 months

C.Quick wins

D.Steady, ongoing improvement

Answer: D

QUESTION 155

"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Service Operation

B.Service Strategy

C.Service Transition

D.Continual Service Improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 156

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Service Strategy

B.Continual Service Improvement

C.Service Operation

D.Service Design

Answer: B

QUESTION 157

The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A.Continual Service Improvement

B.Service Strategy

C.Service Design

D.Service Transition

Answer: B

QUESTION 158

Which of the following could BEST be described as "A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action"?

A.A Problem model

B.A Service Improvement Plan (SIP)

C.A Request for Change (RFC)

D.A Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION 159

Which of the following is the BEST description of a Business Case?

A.A decision support and planning tool that projects the likely consequences of a business action

B.A portable device designed for the secure storage and transportation of important documents

C.A complaint by the business about a missed service level

D.The terms and conditions in an IT outsource contract

Answer: A